Hung out with Pete for a bit before
leaving for pgh.
Got a 1/8" stereo male to phono male Y-cable
at radio smack.
Hence hooking up laptop to most common home
entertainment equiment is now feasible.
Is it true for any n that given any n subsets
a_1..a_n of \N, there exists a sequence b:\N->2
such that b(a_i) is uniform for all i \in 1..n?
I think at least it's true for n = 2 and
'uniform' replaced by '2-uniform'.